Originally Posted by
Vaevictis
Right, but that brings us back round to the notion of intellectual property under copyright and patent.
My assertion is, as stated, that the underlying processes and/or expressions aren't property. The actual copyright/patents are.
Let's say inventor A invents an algorithm through his own labor.
Inventor B, independently invents the same algorithm, again through his own labor.
By your definition, both have property rights to this algorithm, right?
But, in the end, the person who actually receives the property rights is the one who secures the patent, not the one who develops the algorithm (which in this case is both!)