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8timechamps
5/31/2007, 04:48 PM
This may belong on the baseball board, but I know a lot of baseball people post here too.

Here's the question:

If the batter tips a ball on a swing (foul tip), while a runner is advancing to second or third (stealing), is the runner allowed to retain the stolen base? I'm not talking about a foul ball, I'm talking about a foul tip.

I looked through the MLB rules, but didn't see it specifically addressed.

TIA

Hamhock
5/31/2007, 04:53 PM
runner gets the base. foul tip is just as any other strike

BU BEAR
5/31/2007, 04:54 PM
Never mind... I was not thinking of a tip.

sooner_born_1960
5/31/2007, 04:57 PM
Realize that it's only a foul tip if the catcher catches it.

springs sooner
5/31/2007, 04:58 PM
if the catcher catches the ball then yes the runner is not affected. however if the ball is dropped it is considered a foul ball.

damn it i could not type fast enough

8timechamps
5/31/2007, 04:59 PM
Realize that it's only a foul tip if the catcher catches it.

Right...I did know that much. I was just unsure of how the tip (vs foul ball) affected the runner.

Thanks!

OKLA21FAN
5/31/2007, 05:31 PM
Realize that it's only a foul tip if the catcher catches it.


and the ball must go directly from the bat to the catcher's mitt or hand. for example, if the ball 'tipped' from the bat to the catcher's mask and somehow then was legal caught by the catcher, that is simply a 'foul ball' and not and out)and runners would have to return to the legal base occupied at the time of a pitch.

the key to the definition is of 'foul tip' is the travel of the ball.. many coaches, fans and announcers use the term 'foul tip' on a ball that simply comes of the bat at a slight angle towards the back stop (while not hitting the catcher's mitt)